The Don Martin - Jeff Smelser - Mark J. Ward Discussion on

I Corinthians 14:34,35


Smelser's 7th


The following is brother Jeff Smelser's next in the exchange on the true meaning and application of I Corinthians 14:34,35 today.

Subject:
Re: I Corinthians 14: 34, 35
Date:
Mon, 31 Mar 2003 10:41:57 -0500
From:
"Jeff Smelser" <jeffsmelser@ntgreek.net>
To:
<mars-list@mtsu.edu>



Jeff Smelser to Don Martin and Mark Ward, and the list

I asked if Don supposed that in the assembly a woman might read
from the inspired scriptures themselves, aloud, without making any
additional comment.

Don declined to give an answer, supposing that none was required because of
his answer to a related question.

That leaves me wondering, Don, and speculating. In view of the fact
that there is some confusion about whose turn it is to ask a question (at
least I'm confused) I'll submit this as speculation and leave it to Mark to
pose a question for your response.

Speculation: Don would not object to a woman reading the scriptures aloud in
the assembly. Might she do so from the pulpit? What ~scriptural~ distinction
can we make between the pulpit and the pew? After all, neither is known in
scripture.

Alternate speculation: Don would object to a woman reading the scriptures
aloud in the assembly. This would be interesting, for she would not be doing
anything qualitatively different than what Don supposes the prophetess was
permitted to do in the 1st century assembly. She is making no editorial
comment. She is communicating only God's word. Now it is true that
she gets the word by a different means. The prophetess in the first century
would have gotten it by direct revelation whereas the woman today gets it
from the printed page. But I don't see how that makes a difference as far
as 1 Cor. 14:33b-35 is concerned. So Don objects to a woman doing
essentially what he says the prophetess could do?

I think the problem is not in the objection to the woman reading aloud in
the assembly today, but in the supposition that the prophetess was permitted
to speak in the 1st century assembly. Understanding that 1 Cor. 14:33b-35
applies to all women solves the problem.

Jeff Smelser
jeffsmelser@ntgreek.net
www.ntgreek.net
www.centrevillechurchofchrist.org


(from MARS-List Digest 4051, March 31, 2003)

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[Editor’s Note: This is one of the most in-depth, comprehensive studies between brethren on the issue of whether the women in the "b" part of verse 35 of I Corinthians 14:34,35 is "all women", including women today, or whether those women were only the "prophets wives". We hope all readers will continue to study all Bible topics with open minds, willing to conform to God's Truth. Thanks for reading! - Mark J. Ward markjward@yahoo.com]


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