The Don Martin - Jeff Smelser - Mark J. Ward Discussion on

I Corinthians 14:34,35


Smelser's 6th


The following is brother Jeff Smelser's next in the exchange on the true meaning and application of I Corinthians 14:34,35 today.

Subject: Re: I Corinthians 14: 34, 35
Date: Wed, 26 Mar 2003 16:10:08 -0500
From: "Jeff Smelser" <jeffsmelser@ntgreek.net>
To: <mars-list@mtsu.edu>
CC: "Don Martin" <dmartin5@concentric.net>, "Mark J. Ward" <markjward@yahoo.com>,
<markjward@darientel.net>


Jeff Smelser to Mark Ward and Don Martin,

This is indeed a good study. We have seen the topic well defined in broad
terms, differing perspectives thoroughly presented in straightforward
manner, and the critical areas of disagreement made the focal point.

Don, perhaps you will indulge me and entertain a follow-up question?

You wrote:

> In view of I Timothy 2: 11, "Let the woman learn in silence with all
> subjection," I would have to say it is a sin "for a woman to sit in her
>seat during the assembly and read aloud a list of those who are ill, the list
> having been prepared by a man and given to her."

What in 1 Tim. 2:11 prohibits a woman from reading aloud a list of those who
are sick? Is she teaching? Having dominion over a man? I don't see how.

But the real kicker is this - I think we all agree that the instruction in
1 Tim. 2 is not limited to the assembly. Therefore, if 1 Tim. 2:11 precludes
a woman reading a list of the sick in the assembly (a list prepared by a
man), it also precludes a woman reading a list of the sick in some other
places. If some of the saints were gathered at your home for dinner Friday
evening, would you feel your wife was violating 1 Tim. 2:11 if she read
aloud a list of the brethren who were sick? And to maintain the parallel,
let's stipulate what we stipulated in the assembly scenario. Let's say the
list was prepared by a man for her to read. In fact, inasmuch as it's your
wife in your home, let's stipulate that you prepare the list and hand it to
her and ask her to read it. You would object to that as being a violation of
1 TIm. 2:11? I have considerable difficulty seeing how you get that out of 1
Tim. 2:11.

But if you would not object to your wife doing this in that setting, then
neither could you object to her doing the same in the assembly ~on the basis
of 1 Tim. 2:11~, for that passage makes no distinction between being in the
assembly or out of the assembly. Of course, I would object to her doing this
in the assembly on the basis of 1 Cor. 14:34-35, but you, apparently, do
not?

Jeff Smelser
jeffsmelser@ntgreek.net
www.ntgreek.net
www.centrevillechurchofchrist.org


(from MARS-List Digest 4038, March 26, 2003)

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[Editor’s Note: This is one of the most in-depth, comprehensive studies between brethren on the issue of whether the women in the "b" part of verse 35 of I Corinthians 14:34,35 is "all women", including women today, or whether those women were only the "prophets wives". We hope all readers will continue to study all Bible topics with open minds, willing to conform to God's Truth. Thanks for reading! - Mark J. Ward markjward@yahoo.com]


Email the Editor at markjward@yahoo.com


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